Monday, 28 March 2011

Does exchange value have a foundation?

Market Value i read got a boost when Von Neumann amongst others took it 2 be a relative term definable by peoples choices of 1 thing over another - given a choice between things. Like my results network this runs in to problems if one attributes an actual quality 2 this difference. 1 may expect some one 2 prefer A over B and B over C but one cannot then assume they will then prefer C over A! An example of this occurs in my relationship with things. When home i use t internet and at t moment i use t library in town. Because i do this it is obvious to assume i value them and t argument would go tt i should pay 4 them. But i was thinking 2day tt had neither of them been created i wouldn't be using them and would be doing something else instead. In other words where a comparison cannot be made then no relative value can be assigned. One can only say i value there things because i use them. This does not assure tt i will use them in future or miss them if they suddenly cease 2 exist - tho human habit makes people return 2 what they know in favour of seeing things tt no longer exist as if they had never existed. But does this make things valuable? So in a free market where shopping is something people do anyway can we really use t actual exchange of goods as any evidence tt people value there things?

No comments:

US displaying its Imperialist credentials... yet again

Wanted to know the pattern of UN votes over Venezuela and then got into seeing if ChatGPT could see the obvious pattern of Imperialism here....